“Kant’s Concept of the Good Will and its Superiority to Aristotle’s View on the Highest Good” Title: “Kant’s Concept of the Good Will: A Superior Perspective on the Highest Good” In his Fundamental Principles of the Met

Reread Immanuel Kant’s Fundamental Principles of the Metaphysic of Morals, “First Section: Transition from the Common Rational Knowledge of Morality to the Philosophical.” In this section Kant argues against “Aristotle’s claim that the highest good lies in human happiness.” 
With this in mind, respond to the following discussion prompts for this forum:
What does Immanuel Kant mean when he says that “the good will is the only thing that is good without qualification.”  How does this differ from the philosophies we have studied so far–namely, of course, Aristotle, whom Kant cites, but also Aquinas and Mill?
Do you agree with Kant?  Is his vision of the good superior to Aristotle’s?
Responses should be around 400 words.